PMI-RMP Exam Questions and Answers

The PMI Risk Management Professional (PMI-RMP)® certification recognises professionals with knowledge and experience in identifying, analysing and managing project risks. Obtaining this certificate validates your ability to identify risks, assess their potential impacts and plan suitable risk responses. The PMI-RMP exam assesses your knowledge and skills across five domains.

To prepare for the PMI-RMP exam, it is important to understand its format, question types and five knowledge domains. According to PMI, the exam contains 115 questions and lasts 150 minutes. The questions assess your ability to apply risk management knowledge in different project situations.

The following practice questions cover all five PMI-RMP domains, with explanations to help you understand the reasoning behind each answer. You will also find practical preparation tips to guide your revision.

PMI-RMP Exam Questions and Answers for Practice

These 40 PMI-RMP practice questions cover all five examination domains. Each question includes an answer and explanation to help you understand the underlying risk management concept.

The following PMI-RMP practice questions are developed around the topics covered in PMI's official Exam Content Outline. They are intended for learning and revision and are not official PMI examination questions. Let’s look at them below:

Domain 1: Risk Strategy and Planning

1) Which of the following should be considered when developing a project risk management strategy?

a) Only the project budget

b) Organisational risk appetite, stakeholder expectations and project objectives

c) Only the project completion date

d) The number of completed project activities

Answer: B. Organisational risk appetite, stakeholder expectations and project objectives.

Explanation: A risk management strategy should align with organisational objectives, risk appetite and relevant stakeholder requirements. These factors help establish an appropriate approach to managing project uncertainty.

2) What is the primary purpose of establishing risk thresholds during risk planning?

a) To eliminate every identified risk

b) To determine the number of project stakeholders

c) To define the level of risk exposure that requires attention or action

d) To replace the project management plan

Answer: C. To define the level of risk exposure that requires attention or action.

Explanation: Risk thresholds establish limits or conditions that trigger risk-related decisions, escalation or response actions. They support consistent decision-making in line with organisational risk appetite.

3) Which of the following can support the development of a project risk management plan?

a) Organisational process assets

b) Enterprise environmental factors

c) Project charter and stakeholder information

d) All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above.

Explanation: Risk management planning can draw on organisational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, project information and stakeholder requirements. Together, these inputs help establish a suitable approach to managing project risks.

4) Which of the following best describes the purpose of a risk management plan?

a) To define how risk management activities will be organised, performed and monitored

b) To document only risks that have already occurred

c) To guarantee that project objectives will be achieved

d) To replace the project schedule

Answer: A. To define how risk management activities will be organised, performed and monitored.

Explanation: A risk management plan establishes risk management methods, roles, responsibilities, categories, assessment approaches, reporting requirements and monitoring arrangements.

5) How does a risk management plan support project decision-making?

a) By guaranteeing that all project risks will be eliminated

b) By establishing consistent methods for assessing, responding to and monitoring risks

c) By removing the need for stakeholder involvement

d) By ensuring that the original project budget never changes

Answer: B. By establishing consistent methods for assessing, responding to and monitoring risks.

Explanation: A risk management plan defines how risks will be identified, assessed, addressed and monitored. This supports consistent decisions and establishes responsibilities throughout the project.

6) Why should a Project Risk Manager review historical risk information and lessons learned before developing a risk management strategy?

a) To guarantee that previous risks will not recur

b) To identify relevant patterns, assumptions and risk management practices

c) To eliminate the need for stakeholder consultation

d) To replace the project's risk register

Answer: B. To identify relevant patterns, assumptions and risk management practices.

Explanation: Historical information and lessons learned can reveal recurring risk sources and the effectiveness of previous responses. This helps inform risk management planning.

7) What is the primary purpose of a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?

a) To organise potential risk sources into a hierarchical structure

b) To calculate the project's total duration

c) To assign resources to project activities

d) To replace the cost baseline

Answer: A. To organise potential risk sources into a hierarchical structure.

Explanation: An RBS groups potential risk sources into categories such as technical, organisational, external and project management risks. Categories can be adapted to the specific project.

8) A project includes both predictive and Agile delivery activities. How should the risk management approach be established?

a) Apply only predictive risk management methods

b) Apply only Agile risk management methods

c) Tailor risk management activities to the project's delivery approaches and requirements

d) Conduct risk management only during project initiation

Answer: C. Tailor risk management activities to the project's delivery approaches and requirements.

Explanation: A hybrid project may require different risk assessment and reporting approaches across its components. The overall strategy should remain consistent while accommodating project-specific requirements.

9) Why should risk management roles and responsibilities be established during planning?

a) To transfer all project risk ownership to the sponsor

b) To clarify accountability for risk identification, assessment, response and monitoring

c) To eliminate the need for risk reporting

d) To prevent team members from participating in risk reviews

Answer: B. To clarify accountability for risk identification, assessment, response and monitoring.

Explanation: Defining responsibilities supports coordination, accountability and timely risk-related decisions throughout the project lifecycle.

Bonus Tip

Before selecting an answer, identify whether the question focuses on risk identification, analysis, response or monitoring. Pay attention to keywords such as "FIRST", "NEXT", "BEST" and "MOST APPROPRIATE". These terms help you understand what the scenario requires and select the most suitable action.

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Domain 2: Risk Identification

1) Which of the following is an output of the risk identification process?

a) Risk register updates

b) Risk mitigation strategies

c) Risk response strategies

d) Risk management plan

Answer: A. Risk register updates.

Explanation: Risk identification involves recognising and documenting uncertainties that could affect project objectives. The risk register is created or updated to record identified threats, opportunities and relevant risk characteristics.

2) Which of the following is a technique for identifying project risks?

a) Contract closure

b) Brainstorming

c) Final cost reconciliation

d) Earned Value Analysis

Answer: B. Brainstorming.

Explanation: Brainstorming is a collaborative risk identification technique in which project team members, stakeholders and subject matter experts share ideas about potential threats and opportunities. It encourages different perspectives and helps identify risks that might otherwise be overlooked.

3) A project team assumes that a supplier will deliver critical equipment within four weeks, but the delivery date has not been confirmed. What should the Risk Manager do?

a) Treat the delivery date as guaranteed

b) Review the assumption and identify the associated uncertainty

c) Remove the equipment from the project schedule

d) Close the supplier-related risk

Answer: B. Review the assumption and identify the associated uncertainty.

Explanation: Assumption analysis helps identify risks arising from uncertain or unverified assumptions. In this case, an unconfirmed delivery date may create a potential schedule threat.

4) Which of the following best describes a risk trigger?

a) A document that records all project activities

b) A strategy used to eliminate project risks

c) A warning sign indicating that a risk may be approaching or occurring

d) A final report prepared during project closure

Answer: C. A warning sign indicating that a risk may be approaching or occurring.

Explanation: Risk triggers are predefined conditions or indicators that help project teams recognise emerging risk events and implement suitable responses.

5) What is the primary purpose of maintaining a risk register?

a) To record only risks that have already occurred

b) To document identified risks, their characteristics and relevant management information

c) To replace the project management plan

d) To calculate the project's total budget

Answer: B. To document identified risks, their characteristics and relevant management information.

Explanation: The risk register contains identified risks and may include descriptions, triggers, owners, probability, impact and response information. It is updated as risk management activities progress.

6) A project team identifies a new technology that could reduce operating costs but may also introduce integration problems. What should the Risk Manager do?

a) Record only the integration problems

b) Ignore the potential benefits

c) Identify both the opportunity and the threat for further assessment

d) Assume that the technology will deliver only positive outcomes

Answer: C. Identify both the opportunity and the threat for further assessment.

Explanation: Project risks include uncertain events or conditions that may affect objectives positively or negatively. Both opportunities and threats should be identified and evaluated.

7) Which of the following is the clearest project risk statement?

a) The supplier manufactures critical components.

b) Because of limited supplier capacity, critical components may arrive late, potentially delaying project testing.

c) Project testing is an important activity.

d) The supplier has submitted its contract.

Answer: B. Because of limited supplier capacity, critical components may arrive late, potentially delaying project testing.

Explanation: A well-written risk statement identifies the underlying cause, the uncertain event and the possible consequence for project objectives.

8) What is the primary purpose of risk categorisation during risk identification?

a) To calculate the exact cost of every risk

b) To organise risks into groups and identify common sources of uncertainty

c) To eliminate the need for quantitative analysis

d) To ensure that only technical risks are recorded

Answer: B. To organise risks into groups and identify common sources of uncertainty.

Explanation: Risk categories help teams recognise recurring sources of uncertainty and identify areas requiring further investigation.

9) During project execution, a new regulatory proposal may introduce additional compliance requirements. What should the Risk Manager do?

a) Ignore the proposal until project closure

b) Record the proposed requirements as confirmed costs

c) Identify the emerging regulatory risk and assess its potential consequences

d) Automatically classify every regulatory risk as high priority

Answer: C. Identify the emerging regulatory risk and assess its potential consequences.

Explanation: Emerging regulatory uncertainty may affect project cost, schedule or scope. The risk should be documented and assessed using the project's established procedures.

Trainer Insight

Risk identification focuses on recognising and documenting uncertainties that could affect project objectives. In contrast, risk analysis evaluates these risks based on factors such as probability, impact and urgency.

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Domain 3: Risk Analysis

1) What is the primary purpose of qualitative risk analysis?

a) To calculate the exact financial value of every risk

b) To assess and prioritise risks using criteria such as probability, impact and urgency

c) To eliminate risks before project execution

d) To replace the risk register

Answer: B. To assess and prioritise risks using criteria such as probability, impact and urgency.

Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis evaluates identified risks using agreed assessment criteria. It helps determine their relative priority and whether further analysis or response planning is required.

2) Which tool is specifically designed to categorise and prioritise risks based on their assessed probability and impact?

a) Delphi technique

b) Probability and impact matrix

c) Expert judgment

d) Root cause analysis

Answer: B. Probability and impact matrix

Explanation: A probability and impact matrix is used to assess and prioritise risks according to their likelihood and potential consequences. The resulting priority depends on the scales and thresholds established in the risk management plan.

3) A project uses a five-point probability scale and a five-point impact scale. A risk receives a probability rating of 4 and an impact rating of 5. If the organisation multiplies these ratings, what is the risk score?

a) 9

b) 20

c) 25

d) 45

Answer: B. 20.

Explanation:

Risk Score = 4 × 5=20

The score is 20 under the project's defined rating system. Whether this represents a high, medium or low priority depends on the organisation's risk thresholds.

4) A project faces a 30% probability of a £40,000 loss. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this threat?

a) −£12,000

b) £12,000

c) −£40,000

d) £30,000

Answer: A. −£12,000.

Explanation: 

EMV = 0.30 × (-£40,000) =-£12,000

EMV combines the probability of an event with its monetary impact. A negative EMV indicates a potential financial loss.

5) A Project Manager wants to estimate the likelihood of completing a project by a target date when activity durations are uncertain. Which technique is most appropriate?

a) Stakeholder mapping

b) Resource levelling

c) Monte Carlo simulation

d) Contract closure

Answer: C. Monte Carlo simulation.

Explanation: Monte Carlo simulation uses repeated calculations with uncertain input values to evaluate a range of potential project outcomes. It can help estimate the probability of meeting a specified completion date.

6) Which technique helps identify the uncertainties that have the greatest influence on project objectives?

a) Stakeholder engagement analysis

b) Sensitivity analysis

c) Contract reconciliation

d) Project charter development

Answer: B. Sensitivity analysis.

Explanation: Sensitivity analysis evaluates how changes in uncertain variables influence project outcomes. A tornado diagram can be used to display the relative influence of these variables.

7) A project has a 60% probability of achieving a £100,000 gain and a 40% probability of experiencing a £50,000 loss. What is its Expected Monetary Value (EMV) before considering initial investment costs?

a) £20,000

b) £40,000

c) £60,000

d) £100,000

Answer: B. £40,000.

Explanation: 

EMV= (0.60 × £100,000) + (0.40 × -£50,000)

EMV = £40,000

A positive EMV indicates a favourable probability-weighted monetary outcome. However, the final decision should also consider risk appetite, strategic objectives and other relevant factors.

8) Two identified risks have similar probability and impact ratings. Risk A may occur tomorrow, while Risk B may occur in six months. Which factor should the Risk Manager consider when prioritising them?

a) The total number of project employees

b) The original project budget

c) Risk urgency and the time available to implement responses

d) The number of completed activities

Answer: C. Risk urgency and the time available to implement responses.

Explanation: Risks requiring immediate attention may receive greater priority when there is limited time to implement suitable responses.

9) Management wants to understand the combined effect of multiple project risks on cost and schedule objectives. Which approach is most appropriate?

a) Analyse only the highest-priority individual risk

b) Perform an overall quantitative risk assessment using appropriate modelling techniques

c) Remove low-priority risks from the risk register

d) Replace the project schedule with a risk report

Answer: B. Perform an overall quantitative risk assessment using appropriate modelling techniques.

Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis can evaluate the combined effects of uncertainty on project objectives, including potential interactions and dependencies between risks.

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Domain 4: Risk Response

1) A project includes an optional experimental component that introduces significant safety risks. The sponsor decides to remove the component, eliminating the associated threat. Which risk response strategy has been applied?

a) Mitigation

b) Acceptance

c) Transfer

d) Avoidance

Answer: D. Avoidance.

Explanation: Risk avoidance involves changing the project approach or eliminating the source of a threat to protect project objectives.

2) A supplier failure could delay a critical project activity. The team qualifies an alternative supplier to reduce the likelihood of disruption. Which risk response strategy is being applied?

a) Acceptance

b) Mitigation

c) Escalation

d) Avoidance

Answer: B. Mitigation.

Explanation: Risk mitigation reduces the probability or potential impact of a threat. Qualifying an alternative supplier can reduce exposure to supply disruptions.

3) A project team identifies an opportunity to complete testing early. Additional specialist resources are assigned to increase the probability of achieving this benefit. Which opportunity response strategy does this represent?

a) Enhance

b) Avoid

c) Transfer

d) Accept a threat

Answer: A. Enhance.

Explanation: Enhancing an opportunity involves increasing its probability or potential positive impact. Additional specialist support may improve the likelihood of early testing completion.

4) A project team develops a contingency plan to use backup equipment if a critical machine fails. When should the contingency plan be implemented?

a) When the project begins, regardless of the machine's condition

b) Only after the project closes

c) When the specified risk trigger occurs, according to the approved response arrangements

d) Only when the project budget is exhausted

Answer: C. When the specified risk trigger occurs, according to the approved response arrangements.

Explanation: Contingency plans establish actions that should be taken when predefined risk conditions or events occur. Clear triggers and assigned responsibilities support timely responses.

5) Which of the following isn't a recognised risk response strategy?

a) Acceptance

b) Avoidance

c) Risk transfer

d) Procrastination

Answer: d. Procrastination

Explanation: Procrastination isn't a recognised risk response strategy. It refers to delaying or postponing action, which is generally ineffective in managing risks. Procrastination does not involve actively addressing or mitigating risks.

Trainer Insight

Risk mitigation is only one possible response. Avoidance removes a threat, transfer shifts responsibility for certain consequences to a third party and acceptance acknowledges a risk without necessarily taking immediate action.

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Domain 5: Monitor and Close Risks

1) During a project risk review, performance data indicates that several previously identified risks have increased in probability. What should the Risk Manager do first?

a) Close all identified risks

b) Analyse the updated information and reassess the affected risks

c) Ignore the changes until project completion

d) Replace the approved project baseline immediately

Answer: B. Analyse the updated information and reassess the affected risks.

Explanation: Risk monitoring involves examining performance data and reassessing risks when conditions change. The results may lead to revised responses, risk register updates or escalation.

2) What is a residual risk?

a) A risk that remains after a risk response has been implemented

b) A risk created directly by implementing a response

c) A risk that has been permanently closed

d) A risk that has already occurred and become an issue

Answer: A. A risk that remains after a risk response has been implemented.

Explanation: Residual risks are uncertainties that remain after a response is implemented. They may require further assessment, additional responses or continued monitoring.

3) A project team implements new software as a response to the identified risk of reporting errors. However, this response introduces an unexpected data integration risk. How should the new risk be classified?

a) Residual risk

b) Secondary risk

c) Closed risk

d) Accepted risk

Answer: B. Secondary risk.

Explanation: A secondary risk is a new risk that arises directly from implementing a risk response. It should be assessed, documented and monitored according to the project's risk management approach.

4) A project team completes a mitigation action, but the remaining risk exposure still exceeds the agreed threshold. What should the Risk Manager do?

a) Close the risk because the mitigation action is complete

b) Assume the response was effective

c) Stop monitoring the risk

d) Evaluate the remaining exposure and determine whether further action is necessary

Answer: D. Evaluate the remaining exposure and determine whether further action is necessary.

Explanation: Completing a mitigation action does not guarantee that risk exposure has been reduced to an acceptable level. The effectiveness of responses should be assessed against established thresholds.

5) A project risk was associated with a supplier selection decision. The decision has been completed, and the risk can no longer affect project objectives. What should the Risk Manager do?

a) Retain the risk as active indefinitely

b) Confirm that the risk is no longer applicable and close it with appropriate documentation

c) Delete all historical information about the risk

d) Transfer the risk to an unrelated project

Answer: B. Confirm that the risk is no longer applicable and close it with appropriate documentation.

Explanation: Risks that have expired or are no longer relevant can be closed after their status is verified. Relevant information should be retained for reporting, audit purposes and lessons learned.

6) Which technique involves systematically reviewing the effectiveness of project risk management processes and responses?

a) Risk data quality assessment

b) Probability and impact assessment

c) Risk audit

d) Root cause analysis

Answer: C. Risk audit.

Explanation: A risk audit examines how effectively risk management activities and responses have been implemented. It helps identify weaknesses, evaluate existing practices and recommend improvements.

7) A project team has implemented a risk response to address repeated supplier delays. What should the Risk Manager do to determine whether the response is effective?

a) Close the risk immediately after implementing the response

b) Compare updated supplier performance data against the agreed risk thresholds

c) Stop collecting performance information

d) Assume the response has eliminated all delivery uncertainty

Answer: B. Compare updated supplier performance data against the agreed risk thresholds.

Explanation: Risk monitoring involves reviewing performance information, evaluating response effectiveness and determining whether further actions are required.

8) During project closure, the Risk Manager reviews how effectively risks were managed. What should be the primary outcome of this activity?

a) Removing all historical risk records

b) Confirming that every risk was eliminated

c) Replacing the project management plan

d) Documenting response effectiveness and lessons learned for future projects

Answer: D. Documenting response effectiveness and lessons learned for future projects.

Explanation: Risk closeout helps evaluate the effectiveness of risk management activities, preserve relevant records and capture lessons that can improve future projects.

How to Prepare for the PMI-RMP Exam?

Preparing for the PMI-RMP exam requires a structured approach to help you understand key concepts, practise applying them and improve your exam readiness. Here are some steps to help you prepare for the PMI-RMP exam:

1) Understand the PMI-RMP Exam Content Outline: The first step to preparing for the PMI-RMP exam is to understand the exam content outline. This will help you know what to expect in the exam and identify areas where you must focus on your study efforts. The PMI-RMP Exam Content Outline is available on the PMI website and covers five domains.

2) Utilise PMI-RMP Exam Prep Materials: PMI provides official preparation resources, including its PMI-RMP exam prep course, study hall and relevant project risk management publications. These resources can help candidates understand risk management concepts and practise applying them to examination scenarios.

3) Study Techniques and Strategies: Studying for the PMI-RMP exam requires a structured approach. Develop a study schedule that works for you and stick to it. Use various study techniques such as flashcards, mind maps, and summarising notes to help you remember the material. Also, use study strategies such as active reading, testing yourself, and reviewing regularly to reinforce your learning.

4) Practice with PMI-RMP Practice Questions and Exams: Practising sample questions can help you evaluate your understanding of risk management concepts and improve your approach to scenario-based questions. Use official PMI preparation resources where available and verify third-party practice material against the current Exam Content Outline.

5) Join PMI-RMP Study Groups and Online Forums: Joining a study group or online forum can help you exchange study materials, discuss challenging concepts and explore practical risk management scenarios. Learning from other candidates' experiences may also help you identify useful preparation strategies.

6) Tips for Exam Day: If you are taking the exam at a Pearson VUE testing centre, arrive early and carry valid identification that meets PMI's requirements. For an online-proctored exam, complete the necessary system checks and follow the examination instructions. During the exam, manage your time carefully, read each question thoroughly and review difficult questions when the exam interface permits.

Keep This in Mind

Preparing for the PMI-RMP exam requires more than memorising answers. Focus on understanding the five official domains, practising risk calculations and applying risk management concepts to real-world scenarios. Review incorrect answers, strengthen weaker areas and use PMI's official resources to guide your preparation.

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